Two notes reference the SAME index over the SAME tenor from the SAME issuer. Note P is 100% capital-protected; Note Q pays a much higher coupon and is capital-at-risk. Which inference is MOST accurate?
A yield well above the protected alternative signals extra risk taken on, usually optionality sold away; the higher advertised yield on Note Q means more capital at risk, even though issuer credit risk is common to both.
Treating a higher coupon as safety, or assuming identical issuer/underlying means identical overall risk.
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