A client with a well-paid job tells his adviser he is risk-averse and wants stable income for a fixed future expense. The adviser recommends high-risk products because the client's salary can absorb losses. Which statement is correct?
Section 4.4.1.3(iii) example (Lauren and Thomas): the adviser must prioritise the client's financial objectives and risk appetite; a high income does not justify a riskier recommendation. FAA section 36 and FAA-N16 require a reasonable basis. The guide adds that a more conservative profile may be assigned notwithstanding investor classification. Takeaway: objectives govern, income does not.
The recall notes flag this scenario; high income is the distractor.
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